Cisco CCNA 200-125 Certification Exam Answers 61 questions last 2018 Part 5
1. What is the use of IPv4 private space (choose two)
connect applications together
save global address space*
something about NAT
allow intra-company communication*
2. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, three of the following addresses are valid host addresses. Which are these addresses? (Choose three.)
3. Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
The designated port
The backup port
The alternate port
The root port*
4. Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
The interface number
The port priority*
The VLAN priority
The hello time
5. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN*
The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
Dynamic inter-VLAN routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN 4064`
A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN databases to the running configuration only
6. Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?
7. In which two situations should you use out-of-band management?
when a network device fails to forward packets*
when you require ROMMON access*
when management applications need concurrent access to the device
when you require administrator access from multiple locations
when the control plane fails to respond
8. Which command can you enter to configure a local username with an encrypted password and EXEC mode user privileges?
Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 08314D5D1A48*
Router(config)#username jdone privilege 1 password 7 PASSWORD1
Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 08314D5D1A48
Router(config)#username jdone privilege 15 password 0 PASSWORD1
9. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access point?
The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
A connection occurs.
Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.*
10. Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
preference of the route source
IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets*
how the route was learned
exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
11. Which statement about the inside interface configuration in a NAT deployment is true?
It is defined globally
It identifies the location of source addresses for outgoing packets to be translated using access or route maps.*
It must be configured if static NAT is used
It identifies the public IP address that traffic will use to reach the internet.
12. Which option is the default switch port port-security violation mode?
13. Which entity assigns IPv6 addresses to end users?
14. which value indicate the distance from the ntp authoritative time source?
15. Which NTP type designates a router without an external reference clock as an authoritative time source?
16. Which 3 feature are represented by A letter in AAA? (Choose Three)
17. Which of the following are the valid numbers of standard ACL (choosse 2)
18. When you deploy multilink PPP on your network, where must you configure the group IP Address on each device?
in the global config
Under serial interface
Under the routing protocol
Under the multilink interface*
19. What are two statement for SSH?
use port 22*
most common remote-access method
operate at transport
20. If a route is not present in the routing table for a particular destination, what would the router do?
21. Host is able to ping a web server but it is not able to do HTTP request.
ACL blocking port 23
ACL blocking All ports
ACL blocking port 80*
ACL blocking port 443
None of the above
22. Which NTP command configures the local devices as an NTP reference clock source?
23. Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
Access-list 110 permit any any
Access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255*
Access list 101 deny tvp any host 192.168.1.1
Access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
24. Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
25. Where information about untrusted hosts are stored?
26. What is one benefit of PVST+?
PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.*
PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
27. Which statement about VLAN operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
When a packet is received from an 802.1Q trunk, the VLAN ID can be determined from the source MAC
address and the MAC address table.
Unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same VLAN.*
Broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different VLAN.
Ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that VLANs can span across the ports.
28. Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
the switch with the highest MAC address
the switch with the lowest MAC address*
the switch with the highest IP address
the switch with the lowest IP address
29. Which two options are primary responsibilities of the APlC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
lt automates network actions between different device types.*
lt provides robust asset management.
lt tracks license usage and Cisco lOS versions.
lt automates network actions between legacy equipment.
lt makes network functions programmable.*
30. Which command can be used from a PC to verify the connectivity between hosts that connect through a switch in the same LAN?
31. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
Router1 and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
Router1 will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 must be configured with subinterfaces.*
Router1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router1 and the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the same encapsulation type.*
32. What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each nonroot switch in a spanning-tree topology?
lowest port MAC address
VTP revision number
highest port priority number
port priority number and MAC address
33. Refer to the exhibit.
lf RTRO1 as configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running ElGRP on the network? (Choose three.)
34. Which two statements about TACACS+ are true? (Choose two.)
lt can run on a UNlX server.*
lt authenticates against the user database on the local device.
lt is more secure than AAA authentication.
lt is enabled on Cisco routers by default.
lt uses a managed database.*
35. Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst*
spanning-tree mode mst
36. A switch is configured with all ports assigned to VLAN 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?
More collision domains will be created.
IP address utilization will be more efficient.
More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
An additional broadcast domain will be created.*
37. VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode?
The command is rejected.
The port turns amber.
The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.*
The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
38. Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FA0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.*
VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
39. Refer to the exhibit
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what is the most likely problem?
The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN.
The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.*
VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.
40. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.*
It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
41. Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
Bandwidth and Delay
Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
42. Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
show cdp neigbors
show vty logins
43. Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.*
The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
44. Refer to the exhibit.
You have discovered that computers on the 192 168 10 0/24 network can ping their default gateway, but they cannot connect to any resources on a remote network. Which reason for the problem is most likely true?
The 192.168.12.0/24 network is missing from OSPF.*
The OSPF process ID is incorrect.
The OSPF area number is incorrect.
An ARP table entry is missing for 192.168.10.0.
A VLAN number is incorrect for 192.168.10.0.
45. Which WAN topology provides a direct connection from each site to all other sites on the network?
46. Which two passwords must be supplied in order to connect by Telnet to a properly secured Cisco switch and make changes to the device configuration? (Choose two.)
enable secret password*
47. Refer to the exhibit.
Which user-mode password has just been set?
48. Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
Routing protocol code
49. How can you disable DTP on a switch port?
Configure the switch port as a trunk.
Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
Change the operational mode to static access
Change the administrative mode to access*
50. How is the redundancy represented in ntp master?
51. Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected devices?
Show cdp neighbors detail*
Show cdp neighbor
Show cdp interface
Show cdp traffic
52. Which technology can enable multiple vlan to communicate with one another?
Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch
Inter-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch*
Inter-vlan routing using a layer 2 switch
Intra-vlan routing using router on a stick
53. Which protocol is a Cisco proprietary implementation of STP?
54. Which Type of ipv6 unicast ip address is reachable across the internet?
interface Loopback0 ip address 172.16.1.33 255.255.255.224 router bgp 999 neighbor 10.1.5.2 remote-as 65001
Refer to the exhibit . Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224*
Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255
Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224
Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31
Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31
56. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer networking?
System network architecture
Transmission control protocol/Internet protocol*
Open system Interconnect
Open network architecture
57. Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.
Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.*
Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.
Routing tables adapt automatically to topology changes.
An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.
Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.
Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.*
58. Refer to the exhibit.
Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.*
The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool.
Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool.
The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.
59. Which two tasks does the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol perform? (Choose two.)
Set the IP gateway to be used by the network.
Perform host discovery used DHCPDISCOVER message.
Configure IP address parameters from DHCP server to a host.*
Provide an easy management of layer 3 devices.
Monitor IP performance using the DHCP server.
Assign and renew IP address from the default pool.*
60. Which definition of default route is true?
A route that is manually configured.
A route used when a destination route is missing.*
A route to the exact /32 destination address
Dynamic route learned from the server.
61. Which value must the device send as its username when using CHAP to authenticate with the remote peer site id:17604704 over a PPP link?
The automatically generated user name
The local host name*
The user name defined by the administrator
The host name of the remote device.